OK, I'm back at LLPP (absolutely fundamental
rights to Life, Liberty, Property and Privacy) and why the latter two made
us, mainly the Scandinavians and the Anglo Saxons, into
liberals while most of the rest of the world is either
conservative or, mostly,
illiberal.
I don't generally agree with physiologist turned geographer
Jared Diamond but in some respects geography does, indeed, shape culture. I believe it did for the Norther Europeans but not, probably, in the way one might think. The Northern Europeans (the Scandinavians, Frisians, Saxons and post Roman Britons and so on) were, relative to the
continent, poor and scattered. This led, I
think, to a strong respect for the value of private property and individual privacy. Men were willing to fight for both. Now, that broad attribute (respect for property) was (and is) equally common in Asia but it became, I think, a defining feature of the Northern Europeans and it especially guided their political thought. Not by
design, but in practice, the Norther Europeans all shared one common political characteristic: while the
states (petty kingdoms and principalities) were rich enough and the
notables (elders, earls, magnates, etc) were, relatively, often very rich, the kings were usually (relatively) poor. My readings (and they're not as extensive as I would wish) suggests that this situation - rich
statelets, rich earls, and (relatively) poor monarchs - was pretty common throughout the North of Western Europe but uncommon in the rest of Europe and Asia. I think it led to a generally
liberal society in which property right and privacy had to be respected by the king/prince and, equally, by earls towards their barons and knights. When the magnates of England imposed
Magne Carta on King John they were
not being revolutionary. The
rights that they demanded, all the way down to the lowest freeman, were already common in large parts of Norther Europe and had been fairly common in England prior to the Norman conquest.
Why didn't that situation obtain in, say, Italy or China?
My
guess is that those societies were already too well structured by, say, the beginning of the common era - the year 1 AD. By then China was, certainly, already burdened or blessed with Confucianism (take your pick) and Italy and Spain and parts of France and Germany were more or less Roman ... and they stayed that way: respectively
conservative/Confucian and
illiberal/Roman.