Has anybody talking about indiscriminate death and destruction actually looked at the definition?
To wit:
http://www.icrc.org/ihl.nsf/7c4d08d9b287a42141256739003e636b/f6c8b9fee14a77fdc125641e0052b079
Art 51. - Protection of the civilian population
1. The civilian population and individual civilians shall enjoy general protection against dangers arising from military operations. To give effect to this protection, the following rules, which are additional to other applicable rules of international law, shall be observed in all circumstances.
2. The civilian population as such, as well as individual civilians, shall not be the object of attack. Acts or threats of violence the primary purpose of which is to spread terror among the civilian population are prohibited.
3. Civilians shall enjoy the protection afforded by this section, unless and for such time as they take a direct part in hostilities.
4. Indiscriminate attacks are prohibited. Indiscriminate attacks are:
(a) those which are not directed at a specific military objective;
(b) those which employ a method or means of combat which cannot be directed at a specific military objective; or
(c) those which employ a method or means of combat the effects of which cannot be limited as required by this Protocol; and consequently, in each such case, are of a nature to strike military objectives and civilians or civilian objects without distinction.
5. Among others, the following types of attacks are to be considered as indiscriminate:
(a) an attack by bombardment by any methods or means which treats as a single military objective a number of clearly separated and distinct military objectives located in a city, town, village or other area containing a similar concentration of civilians or civilian objects;
and
(b) an attack which may be expected to cause incidental loss of civilian life, injury to civilians, damage to civilian objects, or a combination thereof, which would be excessive in relation to the concrete and direct military advantage anticipated.
7. The presence or movements of the civilian population or individual civilians shall not be used to render certain points or areas immune from military operations, in particular in attempts to shield military objectives from attacks or to shield, favour or impede military operations. The Parties to the conflict shall not direct the movement of the civilian population or individual civilians in order to attempt to shield military objectives from attacks or to shield military operations.
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I am a naval officer, so I have no experience using WP. However, I think the operative word in the Article is “attack”. I don't see the words “indiscriminate death and destruction” anywhere, only “indiscriminate attacks”. So, if you want to talk about that, then you have to define the use of WP as an attack. Perhaps someone in green could enlighten me if it is used in an offensive role – I honestly have no idea.
And if you can define the use of WP as an attack, then you need to apply that to para 5(b), specifically whether it is deemed “excessive in relation to the concrete and direct military advantage anticipated”.
And someone called out Mr. Campbell on his choice of words, specifically “lollygagging”, well; I don't know where the civilians are supposed to go. In all wars, certainly wars in built up areas, civilians have little place to go. But my read of para 7 seems to indicate that the IDF doesn't necessarily have to refrain from engagement where they are present.
Perhaps I am confusing the issue or have missed some critical aspect of the arguments. If so, apologies. If not, can anyone clarify this for me?
MARS