One more thing about this article confuses and concerns me - if anybody out there can explain to me the reasoning behind it, I would very much appreciate it.
"The United States declared it would not apply the laws given under the Geneva Convention, but assured the prisoners would be taken care of humanely".
The suspects were captured during a military operation, and are now being detained in a typical prisoner-of-war scenario (Detained at a facility with other persons captured during similar military operations, during the same campaign - Operation Enduring Freedom). So why is the Geneva Convention not being applied? And, isn't the whole point of the Geneva Convention to assure that prisoners of war are treated humanely in the first place? What purpose does it serve to state that you won't apply the Geneva Convention to "people detained during military operations" (But lets not call them prisoners of war, lets call them detainees) - but yet still state you will treat them humanely?
Also, just to stir the pot and give anybody out there who's eager to jump down someone's throat on here the opportunity...why should other countries follow every rule and regulation provided under the Geneva Convention to a T, when the United States, in this instance, declared it would not? I'm just adding food for thought here, don't attach your bayonettes just yet. But if you were a party that is hostile towards the United States, or at the very least, not friendly - why would you bother to apply the Geneva Convention to captured American soldiers when the United States declared it would not apply the Geneva Convention either, under all circumstances.
My points and questions here are:
- Why did the United States choose not to apply the Geneva Convention to these particular prisoners?
- What is the difference between a prisoner of war, and a detainee, when detainees are captured in the same manner and under the same circumstances as a POW?
- Does anybody find it hypocritical that the United States demands all of its captured soldiers are treated to all the provisions under the Geneva Convention, even though it chooses only to apply those same provisions on a case by case basis?
I'm not trying to sound anti-American, but am I'm not a blind supporter of her either. Any thoughts?